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Why did Jesus call himself a worm in Psalm 22:6?



      

Psalms 22:6

NKJV - 6 But I am a worm, and no man; A reproach of men, and despised by the people.

Clarify Share Report Asked 7 days ago Mini James Williams Supporter

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Mini Jeffrey Johnson Supporter
Why did Jesus call himself a worm in Psalm 22:6?

Jesus uses the word "worm" in Psalm 22:6 to express the deepest possible humiliation, dehumanisation, and public contempt—not because He was literally a worm, but because He was treated as if He were less than human.

Psalm 22:6 uses the Hebrew tolaʿat, a word that can mean a maggot or a lowly worm. Commentaries explain that this imagery signals utter degradation and vulnerability, describing someone treated with contempt and stripped of dignity.

Psalm 22 is widely recognised as a messianic psalm. The humiliation described—mocking, rejection, physical agony—matches the Gospel accounts of Jesus' crucifixion. Jesus was publicly scorned, beaten, stripped, and mocked, fulfilling the psalm's imagery. 

Psalm 22:6 continues: "and not a man." This does not deny Christ's humanity. Instead, it describes how people viewed Him—stripped of honour, mocked, rejected, and treated as worthless. Commentaries emphasise that Jesus was regarded as contemptible, "trampled underfoot," like a worm. 

Psalm 22:6 reflects the depth of Christ's voluntary humiliation (Philippians 2:7–8). He chose to descend to the lowest place—socially, physically, and spiritually—to identify with human suffering and accomplish redemption. 

Conclusion:

Jesus "called Himself a worm" in Psalm 22:6 because the psalm describes the absolute humiliation and contempt He endured on the cross. The term expresses how He was treated—dehumanised, mocked, and crushed—and highlights the depth of His suffering and self‑emptying for humanity. While King David originally wrote this as a lament reflecting deep humiliation and feeling crushed by his enemies, Christians view the psalm as a prophetic picture of Jesus. The word "worm" carries two main interpretations: a literal metaphor for extreme lowliness and a symbolic connection to the crimson-producing tola worm.

While this verse captures the depth of David's extreme humiliation and suffering, in Christian theology, it serves as a profound prophetic metaphor for the suffering of Jesus Christ. 

When Jesus was mocked by the crowds and beaten by Roman soldiers, he was enduring the exact public degradation and feeling of abandonment prophesied in this psalm.

6 days ago 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


1
Image41 Ezekiel Kimosop Supporter
Why did Jesus call himself a worm in Psalm 22:6?

Psalm 22:6-11 says 

"But I am a worm, and no man;
A reproach of men, and despised by the people.
7 All those who see Me ridicule Me;
They shoot out the lip, they shake the head, saying,
8 “He trusted in the Lord, let Him rescue Him;
Let Him deliver Him, since He delights in Him!”

9 But You are He who took Me out of the womb;
You made Me trust while on My mother’s breasts.
10 I was cast upon You from birth.
From My mother’s womb
You have been My God.
11 Be not far from Me,
For trouble is near;
For there is none to help." (NKJV).

Psalm 22 is a psalm of David. It conveys the writer's pain in the midst of his afflictions. It employs metaphorical language in portraying the writer's anguish and pain. Some Bible scholars consider this Psalm as a metaphorical depiction of Christ's messianic sufferings. This does not however imply that Jesus wrote the Psalm. 

The Psalm was primarily written by David to depict his suffering in the hands of his enemies and his passionate desire for divine intervention. The Psalm was possibly composed by David during his experience as a fugitive of Saul who sought to kill him. God preserved David under difficult circumstances until Saul and his three sons were killed in the battle of Mt Gilboa (1 Samuel 31). David finally ascended the throne as king over Israel. 

Now back to the question. 

Should the statement of Psalm 22:6 be understood as the words of Jesus? Whereas there is a strong correlation between David's afflictions and Jesus' messianic suffering that are recorded in the Gospels, I find no theological justification for directly attributing the statement of v.6 to Jesus. I am therefore hesitant to treat the text as verbatim words uttered by Jesus.

5 days ago 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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