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Did Jesus come only for the Jews and not the Gentiles?



    
    

Clarify Share Report Asked October 23 2013 Mini Anonymous (via GotQuestions)

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Shea S. Michael Houdmann Supporter Got Questions Ministries
Jesus is the Messiah that the Jews had been anticipating for centuries (see Luke 2:25; 3:15). As such, He was born into a Jewish family and was reared according to Jewish law in a Jewish town (see ...

October 23 2013 2 responses Vote Up Share Report


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9aa51e4b447252291b959c696fb96539 400x400 Jeremiah Kaaya Supporter Pastor at Springs of Power Church, Teacher by professional
Having been formerly a Muslim, I can tell you that this is one of the weapons used by many Muslims to discredit the worthiness of the sacrifice offered by Jesus for the salvation of the whole world, and dispel Jesus as being the only one through whom the whole world can be set free from the devil. It is surely of the devil's making. 

One of the commonly used scriptures in the Bible in regard to this argument is Matthew 15:22-28. The actual part of major interest is Matthew 15:24-26 when Jesus seems to imply that He had only come for the Jews and not anybody else. However though, if you are a good intentioned reader, in Matthew 15:28, you will realize that Jesus finally granted her prayer after she insisted. Jesus said; "...great is thy faith! Let it be to you as you desire". Lesson from this being that He only wanted to gauge how much her faith was. Whatever therefore was said by Jesus in regard to this was intended for the outcome. 

Despite the woman being from Canaan, Jesus went on to grant her prayer. It was therefore not intended to describe the woman as not being Jew and thereby not fit to be granted her prayer, but to use it as a way test her faith. If it had not been to test her faith, Jesus wouldn't have gone on to grant her prayer. It is usually equally very important to understand the context of scripture before making self befitting conclusions.

Jesus came for all of us, both Jews and Gentiles. The very first case in view of this is the fact that the man who helped carry Jesus' cross was Simon of Cyrene which is in Africa (Matthew 27:32). If Jesus had only come for the Israelites, what would an African have to do with this journey to Golgotha?

In Matthew 28:19-20, Jesus commands His disciples to go to all nations baptizing them in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, teaching them to observe all things that Jesus had commanded. This also is a clear fact that Jesus had come for all; Jews and Gentiles. 

However though, one would ask; why had He sounded as if He had come only for the Israelites? First of all, we have to understand, even from a layman's view that whatever it may be, everything begins somewhere. It was to begin with Israel as it always had, and then on to elsewhere and everywhere.

Matthew 2:13-16, Jesus only took refuge in Egypt when Herod had ordered all the male babies killed. Egypt is in Africa. Here is the fact that Jesus could take refuge any where because He had come for everybody. What would would be the logic Jesus ending up in Egypt for refuge? What would be the logic Jesus coming for only the Jews? Who then would come for the salvation of the rest? These simple signs performed by Jesus can be very good leads.

In Acts 2, when the Holy Spirit descended on the disciples, He made them speak in tongues. All people from all corners of the world were represented. The Arabs, the Parthians, the Medes, etc all could hear in their languages. They were amazed that much as Peter and his colleagues were known to be Jew and from Galilee, they clearly spoke in languages which were not theirs. This was so significant in the sense that if Jesus had not equally come for the Gentiles, what would be the reason every tribe was represented on that day? 

That Peter and some of his colleagues had limited themselves preaching only to the Jews or to those who had chosen to take on Jewish culture, had only been to miss the point, just like many of us do, even in very current situations. Probably that is the outstanding reason God had to bring Paul on board, one who would understand what it had all been about. Gentiles therefore account themselves more to how God used Paul amongst them (the Gentiles) than any other Apostle.

Jesus came for all. Nobody is limited in any way by following Jesus. Muslims are only heard by their God when they speak Arabic, when they pray facing in the direction of the Kaaba, with Jesus, it is a whole different lot. You enjoy Jesus the way you are, so amazing!

August 08 2014 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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1526921826 dennis dunbar Supporter
Jesus came for all mankind. In Genesis 12 Abraham was to be father of many nations, including by spiritual belief. Remember, Jesus said, "I want no man to perish but have everlasting life." How do you think Rahab, the Canaanite woman, is in the lineage of Christ? Because of faith.

May 19 2018 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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