For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.
In the story of the Paralytic being healed (Mark 2:1-11) Jesus heals the man and forgives sins. I know Jesus can forgive sin pre/post cross (that is the very purpose of the miracle to the scribes), but I don't know how Jesus forgives sin in this specific example?
In the Old Testament, sins were atoned for by offerings in the temple, and as stated in previous comments, Hebrews 9:22 says, “Indeed, under the law almost everything is purified with blood, and without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins.”
In the examples sited in the responses above, repentance is evident.
- Ps 51 -David repents
- Ps 32 -David speaks of repentance (v5)
- Isaiah 6:5 Isaiah repents (as evident by confession of sin)
However, the account of Mark 2:1-11, I have the following questions:
1. Where is the blood shed for atonement in this story? Nothing is offered
2. Where is the offering made in place of offerings made at the temple? Nothing is offered
3. Where is any sign of repentance or confession? Nothing is offered
I accept that the paralysed man did not need to go to the temple as Jesus the 'Son of Man' was directly in front of him -however he made no attempt to request anything related to forgiveness of sin. No offerings or confessions were made.
What did Jesus accept in place of the necessary things for forgiveness to be granted?