I've heard it said that Matthew 22:21, Mark 12:17 and Luke 20:25 are also referring to the tithe. Is this true?
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In this situation (which, as noted in the question, is mentioned in all the synoptic gospels), I would say that Jesus was not referring specifically to the tithe. Instead, when He spoke of rendering to Caesar what belonged to Caesar, and to God what belonged to God, He was primarily addressing the general subject of a Christian's obligations to civil government, and pointing out that the fulfillment of those obligations was not incompatible or in conflict with the person's service to God. As I interpret it, He was not referring to any specific rule or commandment regarding the amount of a person's resources that was to be offered back to God, as was commanded by God in the Old Testament (Leviticus 27:30-33). Paul made the same point in his epistles, in passages such as Romans 13:1-7. I would say that, rather than the specific rules on tithing given in the Old Testament, the emphasis in the New Testament for Christians is more on attitude, and on remembering that God is the source of all blessing, as well as of salvation through Christ, and on individuals giving back to Him cheerfully and gratefully as He prospers them, as a reflection of their thankfulness, rather than out of ritual obedience that is unaccompanied by love for God and for one's neighbor. (In Jesus' parable of the Pharisee and the tax collector (Luke 18:10-14), the Pharisee boasted of his tithing, but this did not result in his going back to his house justified.)
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