1 John 4:20
KJV - 20 If a man say, I love God, and hateth his brother, he is a liar: for he that loveth not his brother whom he hath seen, how can he love God whom he hath not seen?
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Although the verse cited in the question uses the word "God" (rather than "Jesus") in describing the object of the person's professed love, I would say that, since Jesus has been the Son of God from eternity past, and is considered by Christians to be (along with the Father and the Holy Spirit) fully God and part of the one Godhead, the statement that John is making would apply equally to a profession of love for Jesus, in addition to a profession of love for God. It would be just as inconsistent for a Christian to say, "I love Jesus", but to hate his brother, as it would be for the Christian to say, "I love God", and yet also hate his brother. (I realize that Jesus was seen by people during His incarnation, but He has not been personally seen on earth by anyone since His ascension. Since John wrote the verse cited in the question after Jesus' ascension, his statement would have been equally applicable to Jesus at the time he wrote it, as well as ever since that time.)
I would like to say that the Scripture that has been referenced needs no interpretation. To me it is very clear, that if we confess to love God, we must love one another who have been made in the image and likeness of God. It is a contradiction to say that we love God and yet hate one another. For 1John 4:8 says "he that loves not, does not know God; for God is love." I believe that this is very serious and according to what the Scripture reveals about our relationship with God, and if we have indeed been born again. If we have been born of God, than it is evident that we will love one another. I would also like to share that the fruit of love in every believer has to come to maturity and is produced by the Holy Spirit. See Galatians 5:22, 23 concerning the fruit of the Spirit.
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