"Did King David abuse his royal power in his relationship with Bathsheba?"
I'm studying 2 Samuel 11 and trying to understand the dynamics between David and Bathsheba. Given that David was king and Bathsheba had no apparent ability to refuse his summons, is it appropriate to view this event as a case of coercion or abuse of power? How have scholars and theologians interpreted this passage in light of modern understandings of consent and authority?
Anonymous
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