Does John 4:22 mean you have to be Jewish to have salvation? It says, "...salvation is from the Jews."
John 4:1 - 54
ESV - 1 Now when Jesus learned that the Pharisees had heard that Jesus was making and baptizing more disciples than John 2 (although Jesus himself did not baptize, but only his disciples).
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Asked 2 days ago
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Jackson Grant
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For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.
Jack Gutknecht
"The only faith that God will accept is that which came through the Jews." This is directly supported by John 4:22, where Jesus states, "Salvation is from the Jews." This indicates that the origin of salvation is through the Jewish people. Additionally, Romans 1:16 mentions that the gospel is "first to the Jew."
"The Bible is of Jewish origin." This point is primarily supported by evidence of biblical transmission and author identity. Historical records indicate that the Gospel of Matthew was first written in Hebrew for early Hebrew believers, who were Jewish Christians. The entire Bible's writing, preservation, and early dissemination were all completed within the context of the Jewish people and culture.
"Our Savior was a Jew." This is clearly evidenced by Jesus' genealogy and identity. Jesus was a Jew by birth, descended from the tribe of Judah through his mother Mary, and belonged to the lineage of David. The Bible says, "It is evident that our Lord sprang out of Judah" (Hebrews 7:14), and the Samaritan woman and Pontius Pilate both recognized Jesus' Jewish identity. John also records Jesus' own statement that he was a Jew (John 4:9).
"The first Christians were Jews." The earliest followers of Jesus were predominantly Jewish. On the day of Pentecost, about three thousand Jews accepted Peter's message and were baptized, forming the first Christian community. The early church in Jerusalem was composed mainly of Jewish believers. --Warren Wiersbe
Mark Vestal
Hello Jack! I agree that salvation came through Israel, that Christ was Jewish, and that the earliest believers were predominantly Jews. But we must distinguish the historical origin of salvation from God's present dispensation of grace.
Christ spoke John 4:22 within the context of God's promises to Israel. Paul confirms that Christ was a minister of the circumcision, fulfilling those promises (Romans 15:8).
However, Paul also reveals a mystery previously hidden: that Gentiles are now fellowheirs and members of the same body in Christ (Ephesians 3:1–6). As Romans 11:11 states, “through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles.”
In Ephesians 2:14–16, Paul explains that Christ removed the dividing wall between Jew and Gentile, reconciling both unto God in one body by the cross.
And in 2 Corinthians 5:19, God was in Christ reconciling the world unto Himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them.
Therefore, the issue isn't whether our Savior came through Israel—He did. The question is whether salvation today depends on Israel's covenantal standing or on faith in Christ's completed work (1 Corinthians 15:1–4; Ephesians 2:8–9).
Salvation is of the Jews in its prophetic origin, but it is offered to the world today through having faith in Christ alone.
Jack Gutknecht
Mark, thank you for your thoughtful response! I agree with much of what you've said, especially that Christ removed the dividing wall between Jew and Gentile (Ephesians 2:14-16), that Gentiles are now fellow heirs in the same body (Ephesians 3:1-6), and that salvation today is by grace through faith in Christ alone (Ephesians 2:8-9)!
I want to clarify one thing, though. My original point was not that Gentiles must depend on Israel's covenantal standing for salvation. It was that the faith itself, the content of saving faith, has a Jewish origin. As you put it, "Salvation is of the Jews in its prophetic origin." Yes, and that same faith is now offered to the world.
So I don't see this as either/or. The faith that God accepts is the faith that came through the Jews, fulfilled in the Jewish Messiah. And that faith is now available to Jew and Gentile alike on the same basis: repentance toward God and faith in our Lord Jesus Christ (Acts 20:21).
Where I'd be careful is with the language of "dispensation." If you mean God's administration of His one plan has shifted focus from Israel to the nations, I agree. But if it suggests salvation was ever by covenant standing rather than grace through faith, I'd push back. Abraham was justified by faith (Romans 4:1-5), and the gospel was preached beforehand to him (Galatians 3:8).
So yes, salvation is of the Jews in its origin, and it is for the world in its offer. The Jewish Messiah is the Savior of all who believe.
Jack Gutknecht
Thanks Mark. I appreciate the iron sharpening iron (Proverbs 27:17)! One concern, though: was salvation ever by anything other than grace through faith?
Abraham was justified by faith (Romans 4:1-5), and the gospel was preached to him beforehand (Galatians 3:8). David knew the blessedness of the man whose sins are forgiven apart from works (Romans 4:6-8). Habakkuk 2:4 says "the just shall live by faith," which Paul quotes to prove faith was always God's way (Romans 1:17; Galatians 3:11).
The Law was never a means of salvation. It was given to reveal sin (Romans 3:20), to lead us to Christ (Galatians 3:24), and to show that righteousness cannot come by works (Galatians 2:21).
So I agree the administration changed. But the basis of salvation has always been grace through faith, from Abraham to today. The Law pointed forward to Christ; it was never a different path. What do you think?
Mark Vestal
Jack, I appreciate the thoughtful challenge! I agree that no one was ever justified by keeping the Law (Galatians 2:16). Abraham believed God and it was counted unto him for righteousness (Romans 4:3). My earlier wording could have suggested that the Law was an alternative means of salvation; that was not my intent.
The distinction I'm making is between the basis of salvation, which rests ultimately in Christ, and what God had revealed for people to believe at a given time. Abraham believed God's promise, but he was not preaching the death, burial, and resurrection as Paul later declared in 1 Corinthians 15:1-4.
Paul says the faith subsequently revealed was previously kept under the Law (Galatians 3:23-25), and describes the dispensation of grace and the mystery made known to him by revelation (Ephesians 3:1-9). This does not mean God had different standards of righteousness, but that His revelation and administration unfolded in time.
I 100% agree that salvation has never been earned by works. I'm deleting that comment (misspelled Moses also). Thanks!