For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.
The interpretation that I gleaned from your commentary on the subject of God's forgiveness is disturbing to me, because it has the potential of misleading some. But on the other hand, it challenges those like myself to dig deeper into scripture, and for that I am grateful.
Although I am not disagreeable with you premises (1) that Christ died for our sins. (2) That if we truly believe and accept that He is the Son of God, and that if our faith is vested in Him, one is truly saved. I like to say that when we are "locked into Christ", it is then when one is saved. For me, locked in or being in Christ is when God can see in my heart that I am fully committed to Him. And it is also when I fully realize that Christ (the Holy Spirit) is in me, and believing that nothing can separate me from God or His love. In fact scripture tells us that there are those that God has already determined their salvation. However, by the same token, there are those that God had examined and had determined that they are lost.
Did God not say that if you love Me keep My commandments? He also said that those that love Him can not sin, however, this can be accomplished only through Jesus Christ and never on our own. When we teach that we do not have to ask for forgiveness every time we sin, it could be misleading to those that are not spiritually mature (on milk). Their understandings of God's grace and mercy, is not as comprehensive as one who is spiritually mature (fed meat). Jesus died for our sins means that salvation (which is a process) is available to all, nevertheless, it is only received by those who do accept Him. Job's refusal to curse God was the evidence of his faith and salvation, God allowed satan to test him because He knew how Job would respond.
Romans 6: 1 What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound? 2 God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?
An apology to God is too weak of a response to be practiced by mature Christians, because an apology only acknowledges and defends the sinful act (apologia) which we have committed.i.e, I apologize if I have offended you... is not as relevant to the concern, than when I say to you that what I have done is reprehensible, and I promise you that I deeply regret my sin, and I promise never to create pain in you again. The latter is my declaration of repentance as opposed to a apology. God does not desire for us to defend our wrong acts, rather He commands that we cease from sins.
You also say that to confess means to agree with. However, there is much more to the meaning; The primary Greek word for “confess” is homologeo which basically means “to say the same thing” and then “agree, admit, acknowledge.” The context must determine the precise nature, emphasis, and meaning of the word. Thus, it can mean to acknowledge sin or to confess or acknowledge someone as something. A similar and somewhat more emphatic word is exomologeo, “promise, consent, admit, confess or acknowledge” and from this, “to praise.”
Simply agreeing that we have sinned does in no way show the offended that we are remorseful, nor does it show that we truly love God. John 14:21 "Whoever has my commands and keeps them is the one who loves me. The one who loves me will be loved by my Father, and I too will love them and show myself to them."
Hi Rev. Banks. Just to clarify for the sake of future readers, which answer are you responding to in your comment above? This way, folks can follow the conversation more effectively. Thanks.
(1Jn 3:9) Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
(Joh 3:18) He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
(Rom 9:30) What shall we say then? That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained to righteousness, even the righteousness which is of faith.
(Rom 9:31) But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness.
(Rom 3:28) Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
(Rom 4:15) Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.
(Heb 10:14) For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.
(Gal 3:10) For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.
(Gal 3:13) Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:
(Gal 3:19) Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.
(Gal 5:1) Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage.
(1Ti 1:9) Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
(Heb 4:10) For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his.
The NT started at the cross. Jesus had to live by and fulfill the law to be the Lamb to die for our sin. In the NT the only sin is written in Rom.14:23...for whatever is not from faith is sin.
There is only one law in the NT. (1Jhn 3:23) And this is his commandment, That we should believe on the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and love one another, as he gave us commandment.
Nowhere after the cross the bible tells us to obey the ten commandments.
Yes, to follow Jesus' example when he taught us to pray, "Forgive us our trespasses, as we forgive those who trespass against us."