For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.
Al Mari
The answer depends on what the New Testament means by the word "God", what one means by "the same" and "no one saw God's face"
Contextually, the word "God" in the NT refers in general to the Father.
"I and the Father are one" maybe the origin of what the question considers as "the same".
The Father and Jesus are not "the same"; they are distinct and separate although "one" in mission, vision and strategic plan for mankind, as well as in Spirit.
The notion that "no one has seen God's face" may have its origin in the Old Testament as a narrative between Moses and God.
This God referred to by Moses happened to be YHVH-Elohim, who was the Creator, the Word-Creator, Jesus-Messiah according to John1:1 and therefore has seen God the Father.
Indeed, Jesus has seen Father-God face to face and they are "one" all the way, as we are all being developed to be "one" with them.
kennith burkett
The total presence of God would burn you to ashes. The mind of him was made known to us in the person of Jesus the Christ. That's the reason at the resurrection we will recive a new body. In 1 Cor. 15:34-58 Paul explains this better than any that I have heard. So Jesus is the only "eye vision" that we ever see of all of God. If we come to a full revelation of Jesus in us, just maybe people could see God's face in us. Love in the Lord. Ken