2

How did Barnabas, being a Levite possess a land, while the Levites were instructed not to possess lands of their own (Numbers 18:20-21; Deuteronomy 10:8-9) as per the law?

The levites were instructed not to possess any land of their own. Being so, how come Barnabas sell a land while the law being against even possessing a land?

Acts 4:36 - 37

ESV - 36 Thus Joseph, who was also called by the apostles Barnabas (which means son of encouragement), a Levite, a native of Cyprus. 37 Sold a field that belonged to him and brought the money and laid it at the apostles' feet.

Clarify Share Report Asked August 20 2014 My passport new Arun Kumar Supporter

For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.

Be the first to start the discussion!

Login or Sign Up to add your comment.