Why does it seem some verses in different Bible versions do not agree with each other?
For example, 2 JOHN 1:7 This is how this verse reads in different versions: Christ as coming in the flesh (NIV) Jesus Christ came in a real body (NLT) The coming of Jesus Christ in the flesh (ESV) a.s.o. It is so clear that in the original Greek Bible the verb (ἐρχόμενον) means "is coming/will come," and not "came" as in many different versions. It is very easy to misunderstand the meaning if it is translated wrongly.
2 John 1:7
MODERNGREEK - 7 [] Διοτι πολλοι πλανοι εισηλθον εις τον κοσμον, οιτινες δεν ομολογουσιν οτι ο Ιησους Χριστος ηλθεν εν σαρκι· ο τοιουτος ειναι ο πλανος και ο αντιχριστος.
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Asked October 05 2014
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Georg Kouz
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Paula Fether
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According to https://www.abarim-publications.com/DictionaryG/e/e-r-ch-o-m-a-i.html, "The word ερχομενον is a participle derived from the verb marked similar below. Its tense is present (which indicates that the action is in the now), its voice is either middle or passive deponent (which means that, even though the form is passive, the subject still performs the action, instead of receives it), and its mood is participle (i.e. a verbal form that's used as an adjective or adverb). This form's case is accusative (which usually indicates object), its number is single, and its gender is masculine." Koine Greek used participles in many places where it would confuse the English reader. But there is no disagreement over the meaning, regardless of the varieties of English expressions, The phrase is essentially "the coming of Jesus Christ in the flesh". None speak of a future or present, repeated or continuing, action. All the translations you mentioned convey the Greek to mean a single past event.
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