For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.
Is the reference in the question to John 8:4 correct? I was thinking that the question might refer to Jesus' teaching on divorce, where He said that, although the Law permitted it, from the beginning it was not so. However, that verse is found in Matthew's gospel (Matthew 19:8), rather than in John 8. (John 8:4 is part of the account of the woman caught in adultery.)
I'm so sorry, the verse is John 8:44.
You belong to your father, the devil, and you want to carry out your father’s desires. He was a murderer from the beginning, not holding to the truth, for there is no truth in him. When he lies, he speaks his native language, for he is a liar and the father of lies.
I hope the moderator can correct it in the question
.