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Why do we suddenly see "the Lord's Day" in this verse, and never before this verse, in the Bible?

This term, 'the Lord's Day' appears in this the last book of the Bible.  Why here, and never before?  Shouldn't every day be the Lord's Day?

Clarify Share Report Asked September 02 2024 Mini Shirley H Supporter

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Mini Paula Fether Supporter Lifelong student of the scriptures
"The Lord's Day" and "The Day of the Lord" are grammatically interchangeable in the original languages. So which way to render it in English is a matter of whether the translators consider "Lord" or "Day" the word to be emphasized in context. But the Bible only uses the term "first day of the week" for what we today call Sunday; it never equates "the Lord's Day/Day of the Lord" with that, and it wasn't used by the church until about 100 years after the close of the New Testament.

In Revelation, then, it seems that John was not referring to the first day of the week but to his being supernaturally taken (in some way) to the future Day of the Lord.

Rom. 14:5 says, "One person regards one day holier than other days, and another regards them all alike. Each must be fully convinced in his own mind." So while of course each day belongs to the Lord, setting one of 7 days apart is a matter of personal preference rather than commandment.

September 03 2024 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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Mini Shirley H Supporter Wife, mother, veteran in the spiritual war we all face!
Isaiah 6:10: "Make the heart of the people dull and their ears heavy, and shut their eyes; lest they see with their eyes and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and return and be healed."

Theologian Tertullian of Carthage observed in the second century, "The seed of the church is the blood of Christians."

Deuteronomy 29:29: "The secret things belong to the Lord our God, but those things which are revealed, belong to us and our children forever, that we may do all the words of this law."

The Bible is a Jewish book from beginning to end, except for the books of Romans through Philemon.

I believe that in addition to the phrase "the Lord's Day" meaning, the new day, the day of remembrance of Jesus, the sabbath day, John was giving a special coded message. 

John was suffering persecution. The emperor was demanding that there be "emperors day.!". There are other phrases: the Day of the Lord, the day of wrath etc. Each have special meanings. But, why this particular wording here in Revelation 1:10? 

John a Jew, a disciple of Jesus was telling them to remain strong.

1 Timothy 4:1: "In the latter times some will depart." I know, this was not that long since Jesus' sacrifice. But, already apostasy was creeping in, slithering along!

John 12:21: " We want to see Jesus!"

Yes, we do! Jesus said in Matthew 10:5,6: "Do not go into the way of the Gentiles, go only to the lost sheep of Israel." John expected the Kingdom to arrive very shortly. The disciples of Jesus stayed in Israel expecting Jesus return. Then...

Saul, Paul, the apostle chosen by Jesus came into the story. (Acts 9:15.)

Persecution had been warned of by Daniel, the prophet!

John was suffering. Even Peter had denied the Lord! (John 15:17)

Look how Paul suffered for the Gospel. (1 Corinthians 11:22 - 28)

Look at what is happening today around the world. Has it changed? Genesis 1:1 - 4.

Just saying, it wasn't that long ago, "Wear your mask, get your vaccine, don't go out, especially not to church. But, you can go to the bar, or liquor store, get your drugs, don't go to buy your groceries, have them delivered, etc."

1 Corinthians 16:13: "Watch, stand fast, be strong." Today and every day is the Lord's day! 

The Book of The Revelation of Jesus Christ given to John is to be understood as a timeless message. Persecution, chaos, turmoil, war...But, Jesus first! Every day is The Lord's Day! We are fortunate to be in the age of grace! Amen! In the Spirit, nothing can separate us.

September 08 2024 0 responses Vote Up Share Report


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