Why does John's Gospel contain Jesus' clearest claims to divinity, while Matthew, Mark, and Luke do not? If Jesus repeatedly made statements such as, "Before Abraham was, I AM," or "I and the Father are one," why don't the earlier Gospels mention it?
John 8:58
NKJV - 58 Jesus said to them, "Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.
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Asked August 04 2026
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kyle alfriend
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Daniel Veler
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Your question: Why does John's Gospel contain Jesus' clearest claims to divinity, while Matthew, Mark, and Luke do not? If Jesus repeatedly made statements such as, "Before Abraham was, I AM," or "I and the Father are one," why don't the earlier Gospels mention it? Understanding the words Jesus spoke, most attribute the words he spoke as his own. But this was not the case. He spoke the words of his Father, speaking through his Son and not the other way around. Most are taught that Jesus spoke on his own. But look at what he tells us. John 12:49: “For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak.” John 14:24: “He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.” Jesus was instructed by the Father on what to say. The Father was in Jesus and Jesus was in him, making them one. His words were the Father's words speaking through him. If we revisit the scripture you’re referring to and apply the concept that the Father is actually speaking through Jesus, you will see it was the Father’s words. When we read the words spoken by Jesus, saying “Before Abraham was, I Am,” it shows us the Father saying through Jesus "Before Abraham was, I Am." Always remember the words Jesus spoke were actually God speaking to us through him.
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