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Why does Jesus in Mark 2:25-26 refer to the high priest as Abiathar, but in 1 Samuel 21 the high priest is named Ahimelek?



    
    

Clarify Share Report Asked August 29 2015 Open uri20131118 12397 196fd2r Peter MowlahBaksh Supporter

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Open uri20131118 12397 196fd2r Peter MowlahBaksh

Thanks Timothy. I am convinced that there is no error here in scripture. But I am just trying to clarify this issue. Shouldn't Samuel's record mention Ahimelek also?

August 30 2015 Report

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