Tim Maas Supporter Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army

Various scholarly commentaries on this verse (as found on the website https://www.biblehub.com) are in consensus on the following points, which those commentaries regard as sufficient to show that all words in the verse subsequent to "For there are three that bear record" are a later interpolation to the original inspired text:

(1) They are not found in a single Greek manuscript earlier than the fourteenth century.

(2) Not one of the Greek or Latin Fathers who conducted the resolution of the controversies about the doctrine of the Trinity in the third, fourth, and first half of the fifth centuries ever quoted the words.

(3) The words occur first towards the end of the fifth century in Latin, and are found in no other language until the fourteenth century.

The only words that are regarded as genuine in this verse are, "For there are three that bear record".

May 21 2020 • 6 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

John Appelt Supporter

There is a section in 1 John 5:7–8, that is in question as to whether it belongs or not. The portion is shown in brackets as follows:

7For there are three that bear record [in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit: and these three are one. 8And there are three that bear witness in earth,] the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one. 

Scholars call this “The Johannine Comma;” the word “comma” meaning “short clause,” thus, “John’s Phrase.” 

In his book, “A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament,” Bruce M. Metzger observed that this phrase is not in any Greek manuscripts except for eight very late manuscripts, no earlier than the 10th century and mostly Latin manuscripts of the 15th century and after. The “Comma” is lacking in the ancient versions such as the Peshitta, Philoxenian, Coptic, Ethiopic, and Armenian. 

He also noted that none of the early church fathers quoted it which would have been to their advantage during the controversy over the doctrine of the Trinity. Some early English versions had the phrase in parentheses. 

The context of the passage is about believing Jesus is the Christ who is born of God, 1 John 5:1. It answers the question, “How do we know He is the Christ?” Reading the passage without the questioned phrase, reveals the three things that authenticate that Jesus is the Messiah/Christ, verse 6:

The Spirit who came upon Christ like a dove, Matthew 3:16–17, and was upon Him His entire ministry. 

The water of baptism which at the beginning consecrated Christ by which He identified with man and gave forth the water of the Word, John 4:9–14, 37–39, 15:3. 

The blood which at the end, He shed in His sacrificial death by which He died for all.

Grammatically, the passage can stand alone without the questionable phrase. 1 John 5:9 continues the train of thought of the passage. 

The phrase in question speaks of the trinity which is not anything that is being considered. The inclusion of three witnesses in heaven distorts the point being made. “Three” spoken of God is never found in the Bible except in this phrase. 

Yet, there is an explanation of how it came to be in the few manuscripts and the King James Version. In his blog on “The Text of the Gospels,” James Snapp Jr said, “…the Comma Johanneum was not part of the original text of First John; it began as a Latin interpretative note on verse 8…” Somehow, it came to be incorporated into the text. 

This is why the King James Version, translated from later Latin Vulgate versions, included it. Some claim it was omitted by those who did not support the doctrine of the Trinity, but there is no evidence for that. Besides, there are many supporting verses for the Trinity.

There is no evidence or proper sense to include the Johannine Comma. It just does not belong.

2 days ago • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report

Jack Gutknecht Supporter Arizona Bible College graduate and Dallas Seminary graduate

All the old versions omit the words. The oldest manuscripts of the Vulgate omit them.

This is largely true for Greek and Eastern versions. However, the Old Latin and later Vulgate manuscripts do contain it (which is why the KJV has it).

May 24 2020 • 0 responses • Vote Up • Share • Report