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Did God deceive Jeremiah as suggested in Jeremiah 20:7?

In Jeremiah 20:7, Jeremiah says, “You deceived me, O Lord, and I was deceived.” Does this mean God actually deceived him, or is there a deeper meaning that fits with God’s truthfulness?

Clarify Share Report Asked 8 hours ago Mini Anonymous

For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.

Mini Tim Maas

From biblehub.com:

"The Hebrew word for "deceived" can also mean "enticed" or "persuaded," indicating Jeremiah's feeling that God led him into a prophetic ministry that brought him suffering. This echoes the experience of other prophets who faced hardship, such as Moses (Exodus 5:22-23) and Elijah (1 Kings 19:4). Theologically, this phrase highlights the tension between divine sovereignty and human experience, where God's plans may not align with human expectations. Jeremiah's complaint is not unique; it parallels the lament psalms where the psalmists express feelings of abandonment (Psalm 22:1)."

5 hours ago Report

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