0

Why does Paul say "There is no partiality with God" when he says right before that, "But glory, honor, and peace to everyone who works what is good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek."?

If paul says God has no partiality then why does he say "to the Jew first"? To me saying to the Jew first means that they are in favor.  I know that in the Gospel it is often said to preach to the Jew first. I feel these statments contradict each other.

Clarify Share Report Asked March 18 2014 Open uri20130915 3233 lumrt8 Paul Mannon Supporter

For follow-up discussion and general commentary on the topic. Comments are sorted chronologically.

Be the first to start the discussion!

Login or Sign Up to add your comment.